ACCA考试P9模拟测试题及答案解析
Question:Which of the following is not a valid reason why the directors of a company might decide to retain earnings rather than pay them out as dividends?
A. Retention of earnings avoids the possibility of a change in control resulting from an issue of new shares
B. Finance from retained earnings has no cost as a source of finance.
C. The shareholders generally wish to make a capital profit
D. Retention of earnings allows the directors to undertake investment projects without involving the shareholders
The correct answer is: Finance from retained earnings has no cost as a source of finance.
解析:Finance from retained earnings has the same cost as the rest of the equity capital. However their use does not incur transaction costs.
If the shareholders wish to make a capital profit (2) then they will prefer their income in the form of capital growth rather than dividends. Thus they will be in favour of the company operating a policy of high retentions.
Since no change is made to the structure of the ownership of the business, the use of retentions (3) does avoid the possibility of a change in control.
4 is a valid reason. In this situation the directors will not have to go to the general meeting to obtain permission for a further capital issue to finance new projects. The use of retained earnings therefore allows them greater autonomy in their decisions.
Question:BC Co has identified two mutually exclusive projects which have an equivalent effect on the risk profile of the company. Project 1 has a payback period of 2.8 years, an NPV of $17,200, an internal rate of return of 18% and an average accounting rate of return of 19%. Project 2 has a payback period of 3.2 years, an NPV of $15,700, an internal rate of return of 22% and an average accounting rate of return of 21%. The cost of capital is 15%.
Assuming that the directors wish to maximise shareholder wealth and no shortage of capital is expected, which project should the company choose?
A. Project 2 because it has the higher internal rate of return.
B. Project 1 because it has the shorter payback period.
C. Project 1 because it has the higher net present value.
D. Project 2 because it has the higher accounting rate of return.
The correct answer is: Project 1 because it has the higher net present value.
Net present value is the appraisal method to adopt when mutually exclusive projects exist and the aim is to maximise shareholder wealth.